Hypothetically, (and just pondering out loud on an internet football forum, before the thought police intervene...), are we to believe that if Tonda had committed this misdemeanor as a Premier League manager, then the FA would HAVE to have treated him the same as Bielsa, given they wouldn't have the "new EFL rule" scenario on the table to leverage a different outcome, as seems likely this time around...?
Which undelines the point I've been sticking to all along, that surely the FA should be treating all managers the same for misdemeanors such as this, regardless of which rules a particular league happens to have in place, or not as the case may be. Otherwise you just end up with inconsistent outcomes for the same 'crime'...