So paraphrasing "...I may not know for years to come whether it has been better or worse...We won't know the full economic consequences for a very long time,...over the next 50 years." into "it could take up to 50 years" equates to complete misrepresentation ? How long, in your estimation, is the 'very long time' that we will have to wait to find out 'the full economic consequences" and if we will be better or worse ?